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Paul and the Veil of Moses

submitted by Markshirley to Christianity 2 monthsFeb 17, 2025 13:25:50 ago (+0/-1)     (albany1845.wixsite.com)

https://albany1845.wixsite.com/adventlearningcenter/post/_veil

Do not read the old testament


23 comments block


[ - ] Reunto 1 point 2 monthsFeb 17, 2025 13:58:08 ago (+1/-0)

Wix sites, my favourite!

[ - ] Markshirley [op] -1 points 2 monthsFeb 17, 2025 18:22:47 ago (+0/-1)

Hey pal I figure if I use wix I can't be called an antisemite

[ - ] Love240 0 points 2 monthsFeb 17, 2025 15:34:10 ago (+1/-1)

Paul specifically tells us in 2 Timothy 3:16-17
All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.

Like I've told you before; this person is an unstable soul and is NOT to be followed.

[ - ] Markshirley [op] -1 points 2 monthsFeb 17, 2025 17:59:51 ago (+0/-1)

Besides Paul's claim in 1 Corinthians 14:37 nowhere else do texts in the NT claim to be scriptures

[ - ] Love240 0 points 2 monthsFeb 17, 2025 18:43:30 ago (+1/-1)

Besides Paul's claim in 1 Corinthians 14:37 nowhere else do texts in the NT claim to be scriptures

What are you even trying to say?

Paul knew the Old Testament was scripture;
Now when they had passed through Amphipolis and Apollonia, they came to Thessalonica, where was a synagogue of the Jews: And Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures, Opening and alleging, that Christ must needs have suffered, and risen again from the dead; and that this Jesus, whom I preach unto you, is Christ. - Acts 17:1-3

1 Corinthians 14:37 specifically is saying that the words Paul is writing are also indeed scripture, as inspired by the Holy Spirit, and I agree. This does not negate his words in 2 Timothy 3 that tell us as well that all scripture is given by inspiration of God and are profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness.

[ - ] Markshirley [op] -1 points 2 monthsFeb 17, 2025 19:15:20 ago (+0/-1)

Show me where some texts besides Paul claim they are God's commands?

[ - ] Love240 0 points 2 monthsFeb 17, 2025 21:15:36 ago (+1/-1)

I just quoted you Paul saying that they are scripture.

All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works. - 2 Timothy 3:16-17

Corinthians was a letter to the Church in Corinth. Yes it is scriptures. So is the Old Testament which is what Paul reasoned with them from.

How do you perceive that Paul 'reasoned with them out of the scriptures' otherwise?

Do you think Paul went into the synagogues and preached 1 Corinthians to them?...

Paul used much of the Old Testament to argue that Jesus was the Christ.

He quoted many portions of the Old Testament, including but not limited to Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Deuteronomy, Habakkuk, Jeremiah, Proverbs, Psalms, Malachai, Job, Isaiah, Ezekiel, Joel, and Nahum.

Paul clearly understood the Old Testament to be scripture.

It really takes a special kind of ignorant to not comprehend that and to argue otherwise.

The onus is on you to make your case that the Old Testament is not scripture; Because every true Christian knows it to be the Word of God because the Holy Spirit bears witness to this, and this is backed up by the New Testament scripture saying that is.

Simply down-voting because you disagree doesn't make you correct nor does it even make what you've said an argument.

[ - ] Markshirley [op] -1 points 2 monthsFeb 18, 2025 13:18:47 ago (+0/-1)

You're assuming that scripture means the full canon of the Bible we have today. It doesn't it means Paul's letters! Paul says his letters are God's commands he doesn't say anything thing else is

[ - ] Love240 0 points 2 monthsFeb 18, 2025 14:13:14 ago (+1/-1)

You're assuming that scripture means the full canon of the Bible we have today.

That's what scripture is.

That's what Paul argues out of.

If you have even read the OT, you would know some of where Paul is quoting.

You haven't prove otherwise. (And you're never going to, because it's the Word of God.)

You're playing with fire.

Repent.

[ - ] Markshirley [op] -1 points 2 monthsFeb 18, 2025 14:27:28 ago (+0/-1)

When Paul mentioned ot texts he is always saying they're not binding on us. So they're not for us. The veil of Moses is a clear concise teaching about the ot.

[ - ] Love240 1 point 2 monthsFeb 18, 2025 14:32:34 ago (+1/-0)

When Paul mentioned ot texts he is always saying they're not binding on us. So they're not for us. The veil of Moses is a clear concise teaching about the ot.

You are ignoring NT scripture to say that. (2 Timothy 3:16-17)

Your eyes are veiled.

Repent and believe the Word of God.

[ - ] Markshirley [op] -2 points 2 monthsFeb 18, 2025 14:25:30 ago (+0/-2)

The biblical canon was not around at the time of Paul. Scripture means Paul's letters prove otherwise. I can prove it.1 Cor 14:37. Paul never says the gospels or James etc are God's commands neither do those texts themselves.

[ - ] Love240 0 points 2 monthsFeb 18, 2025 14:33:08 ago (+1/-1)

The biblical canon was not around at the time of Paul.

Yes it was, it was known as the Old Testament.

It was capped of with the New Testament prophets.

[ - ] Markshirley [op] -2 points 2 monthsFeb 18, 2025 17:57:38 ago (+0/-2)

in the book of Matthew 2:23 where we are told that “Jesus came and resided in a city called Nazareth that what was spoken through the prophets might be fulfilled, ‘He shall be called a Nazarene.’” This statement does not appear anywhere in the Old Testament. In fact, at the time of the writing of the Old Testament, the city of Nazareth did not even exist! What texts are Matthew talking about? Not the ot but likely a different collection of texts or Matthew is wrong and proven false

[ - ] Markshirley [op] -2 points 2 monthsFeb 18, 2025 14:25:55 ago (+0/-2)

The biblical canon was not around at the time of Paul. Scripture means Paul's letters prove otherwise. I can prove it.1 Cor 14:37. Paul never says the gospels or James etc are God's commands neither do those texts themselves.

[ - ] Markshirley [op] -2 points 2 monthsFeb 17, 2025 17:56:43 ago (+0/-2)

Scripture means Paul's letters 1 Corinthians 14:37

[ - ] Love240 0 points 2 monthsFeb 17, 2025 18:44:00 ago (+1/-1)

Paul knew the Old Testament was scripture;
Now when they had passed through Amphipolis and Apollonia, they came to Thessalonica, where was a synagogue of the Jews: And Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures, Opening and alleging, that Christ must needs have suffered, and risen again from the dead; and that this Jesus, whom I preach unto you, is Christ. - Acts 17:1-3

You need to repent of this heresy. The OT is the Word of God as is the NT.

[ - ] Markshirley [op] -2 points 2 monthsFeb 17, 2025 19:14:18 ago (+0/-2)

Yeah explain the veil of Moses. He knows the old testament is an obstacle

[ - ] doginventer -1 points 2 monthsFeb 19, 2025 07:38:18 ago (+0/-1)

Do you suppose if you read the OT that you might be able to avoid coming off like a fool when you talk about it?

29 And it came to pass, when Moses came down from mount Sinai with the two tables of testimony in Moses' hand, when he came down from the mount, that Moses wist not that the skin of his face shone while he talked with him.
30 And when Aaron and all the children of Israel saw Moses, behold, the skin of his face shone; and they were afraid to come nigh him.
31 And Moses called unto them; and Aaron and all the rulers of the congregation returned unto him: and Moses talked with them.
32 And afterward all the children of Israel came nigh: and he gave them in commandment all that the LORD had spoken with him in mount Sinai.
33 And till Moses had done speaking with them, he put a vail on his face.
34 But when Moses went in before the LORD to speak with him, he took the vail off, until he came out. And he came out, and spake unto the children of Israel that which he was commanded.
35 And the children of Israel saw the face of Moses, that the skin of Moses' face shone: and Moses put the vail upon his face again, until he went in to speak with him.
Exodus 34 KJV

Of course you could have understood this from the NT if you wanted.

7 But if the ministration of death, written and engraven in stones, was glorious, so that the children of Israel could not stedfastly behold the face of Moses for the glory of his countenance; which glory was to be done away: 8 How shall not the ministration of the spirit be rather glorious? 9 For if the ministration of condemnation be glory, much more doth the ministration of righteousness exceed in glory. 10 For even that which was made glorious had no glory in this respect, by reason of the glory that excelleth. 11 For if that which is done away was glorious, much more that which remaineth is glorious. 12 Seeing then that we have such hope, we use great plainness of speech: 13 And not as Moses, which put a vail over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished: 14 But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ. 15 But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the vail is upon their heart. 16 Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away.
2 Corinthians 3 KJV

[ - ] NaturalSelectionistWorker -1 points 2 monthsFeb 17, 2025 13:57:47 ago (+0/-1)

jew tells christians not to read the word of the jews

Yeah if you read the old testament you may figure out that when jesus said he came to fulfill the prophets of abraham's line, he meant he was going to give the jews the power to control many nations just as abraham's line was told they would. Wouldn't want you figuring that out.